Adi_Dem
Well-known member
OK, you've posted this claim multiple times, there is no precedent to prove that it does or doesn't so rather than throw the term out there, why not back it up a little more. I know law is your area of expertise but there are no experts in this particular case because it has no precedence to draw from
It isn't a 'claim'. It doesn't require precedent. The remoteness of damage and causation tests are long established law. Causation is not a limit to recoverability, we need to establish causation to found a claim. Liability is limited to consequences which are attributable to the wrongful act or breach, ie there must be a causal connection between the breach and the loss sustained. The traditional 'but for' test is the preliminary stage in finding causation and asks: would the damage have accrued but for the defaulting party's action?
There is voluminous case law on this.
Causation is an issue of fact and it is the claimant who bears the burden of proving, on the balance of probabilities, not only the defendant’s wrong and their loss or damage but the causal link between the two. As an example, the Court of Appeal held in one case that a material contribution to the risk of damage does not prove causation, in another that causation is ultimately a fact-specific issue and the courts should take a general common-sense approach in determining whether or not a breach of contract is an ‘effective’ or ‘dominant’ cause of the innocent party's loss and in another whether the relevant breach is an ‘effective’ or ‘dominant’ cause of loss suffered by the innocent party, rather than merely creating the occasion or opportunity for the relevant loss to be sustained by such party.
I don't see how the club can pass those tests and win damages for something as remote as that which is being claimed.