And I'm not trying to "prove" anything, I'm stating for a fact (as known by every referee at every level throughout the world) that Rashford could not have interfered with play as he didn't touch the ball.
And I'm saying that it's debatable as to whether he interfered with an opponent or not, which once again, is self evident by the fact that different current and former match officials have different opinions on it.
If you won't take my word for it on the definition of interfering with play, here's a direct quote from the IFAB when they first defined it.
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